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A user is trying to configure the CloudWatch billing alarm.
Which of the below mentioned steps should be performed by the user for the first time alarm creation in the AWS Account Management section?

A.    Enable Receiving Billing Reports
B.    Enable Receiving Billing Alerts
C.    Enable AWS billing utility
D.    Enable CloudWatch Billing Threshold

Answer: B
AWS CloudWatch supports enabling the billing alarm on the total AWS charges. Before the user can create an alarm on the estimated charges, he must enable monitoring of the estimated AWS charges, by selecting the option “Enable receiving billing alerts”. It takes about 15 minutes before the user can view the billing data. The user can then create the alarms.

A user is planning to use AWS Cloud formation for his automatic deployment requirements. Which of the below mentioned components are required as a part of the template?

A.    Parameters
B.    Outputs
C.    Template version
D.    Resources

Answer: D
AWS Cloud formation is an application management tool which provides application modelling, deployment, configuration, management and related activities. The template is a JSON-format, text-based file that describes all the AWS resources required to deploy and run an application.
It can have option fields, such as Template Parameters, Output, Data tables, and Template file format version. The only mandatory value is Resource. The user can define the AWS services which will be used/created by this template inside the Resource section

A user has launched an EBS backed EC2 instance.
The user has rebooted the instance.
Which of the below mentioned statements is not true with respect to the reboot action?

A.    The private and public address remains the same
B.    The Elastic IP remains associated with the instance
C.    The volume is preserved
D.    The instance runs on a new host computer

Answer: D
A user can reboot an EC2 instance using the AWS console, the Amazon EC2 CLI or the Amazon EC2 API. Rebooting an instance is equivalent to rebooting an operating system. However, it is recommended that the user use the Amazon EC2 to reboot the instance instead of running the operating system reboot command from the instance. The instance remains on the same host computer and maintains its public DNS name, private IP address, and any data on its instance store volumes. It typically takes a few minutes for the reboot to complete, but the time it takes to reboot depends on the instance configuration.

A user has created an ELB with Auto Scaling.
Which of the below mentioned offerings from ELB helps the user to stop sending new requests traffic from the load balancer to the EC2 instance when the instance is being deregistered while continuing in-flight requests?

A.    ELB sticky session
B.    ELB deregistration check
C.    ELB connection draining
D.    ELB auto registration Off

Answer: C
The Elastic Load Balancer connection draining feature causes the load balancer to stop sending new requests to the back-end instances when the instances are deregistering or become unhealthy, while ensuring that inflight requests continue to be served.

A user has launched an EC2 instance from an instance store backed AMI.
The infrastructure team wants to create an AMI from the running instance.
Which of the below mentioned steps will not be performed while creating the AMI?

A.    Define the AMI launch permissions
B.    Upload the bundled volume
C.    Register the AMI
D.    Bundle the volume

Answer: A
When the user has launched an EC2 instance from an instance store backed AMI, it will need to follow certain steps, such as “Bundling the root volume”, “Uploading the bundled volume” and “Register the AMI”. Once the AMI is created the user can setup the launch permission. However, it is not required to setup during the launch.

A user has enabled the Multi AZ feature with the MS SQL RDS database server.
Which of the below mentioned statements will help the user understand the Multi AZ feature better?

A.    In a Multi AZ, AWS runs two DBs in parallel and copies the data asynchronously to the
replica copy
B.    In a Multi AZ, AWS runs two DBs in parallel and copies the data synchronously to the
replica copy
C.    In a Multi AZ, AWS runs just one DB but copies the data synchronously to the standby
D.    AWS MS SQL does not support the Multi AZ feature

Answer: C
Amazon RDS provides high availability and failover support for DB instances using Multi-AZ deployments. In a Multi-AZ deployment, Amazon RDS automatically provisions and maintains a synchronous standby replica in a different Availability Zone. The primary DB instance is synchronously replicated across Availability Zones to a standby replica to provide data redundancy, eliminate I/O freezes, and minimize latency spikes during system backups. Running a DB instance with high availability can enhance availability during planned system maintenance, and help protect your databases against DB instance failure and Availability Zone disruption.Note that the high-availability feature is not a scaling solution for read-only scenarios; you cannot use a standby replica to serve read traffic. To service read-only traffic, you should use a read replica.

A user is trying to delete an Auto Scaling group from CLI.
Which of the below mentioned steps are to be performed by the user?

A.    Terminate the instances with the ec2-terminate-instance command
B.    Terminate the Auto Scaling instances with the as-terminate-instance command
C.    Set the minimum size and desired capacity to 0
D.    There is no need to change the capacity. Run the as-delete-group command and it will reset
all values to 0

Answer: C
If the user wants to delete the Auto Scaling group, the user should manually set the values of the minimum and desired capacity to 0. Otherwise Auto Scaling will not allow for the deletion of the group from CLI. While trying from the AWS console, the user need not set the values to 0 as the Auto Scaling console will automatically do so.

An organization is planning to use AWS for 5 different departments.
The finance department is responsible to pay for all the accounts.
However, they want the cost separation for each account to map with the right cost centre.
How can the finance department achieve this?

A.    Create 5 separate accounts and make them a part of one consolidate billing
B.    Create 5 separate accounts and use the IAM cross account access with the roles for better
C.    Create 5 separate IAM users and set a different policy for their access
D.    Create 5 separate IAM groups and add users as per the department’s employees

Answer: A
AWS consolidated billing enables the organization to consolidate payments for multiple Amazon Web Services (AWS. accounts within a single organization by making a single paying account. Consolidated billing enables the organization to see a combined view of the AWS charges incurred by each account as well as obtain a detailed cost report for each of the individual AWS accounts associated with the paying account.

A sys admin has created the below mentioned policy and applied to an S3 object named aws.jpg. The aws.jpg is inside a bucket named cloudacademy.
What does this policy define?
“Statement”: [{
“Sid”: “Stmt1388811069831”,
“Effect”: “Allow”,
“Principal”: { “AWS”: “*”},
“Action”: [ “s3:GetObjectAcl”, “s3:ListBucket”, “s3:GetObject”],
“Resource”: [ “arn:aws:s3:::cloudacademy/*.jpg”]

A.    It is not possible to define a policy at the object level
B.    It will make all the objects of the bucket cloudacademy as public
C.    It will make the bucket cloudacademy as public
D.    the aws.jpg object as public

Answer: A
A system admin can grant permission to the S3 objects or buckets to any user or make objects public using the bucket policy and user policy. Both use the JSON-based access policy language. Generally if the user is defining the ACL on the bucket, the objects in the bucket do not inherit it and vice a versa. The bucket policy can be defined at the bucket level which allows the objects as well as the bucket to be public with a single policy applied to that bucket. It cannot be applied at the object level.

A user has created a VPC with CIDR
The user has created public and VPN only subnets along with hardware VPN access to connect to the user’s datacenter.
The user wants to make so that all traffic coming to the public subnet follows the organization’s proxy policy.
How can the user make this happen?

A.    Setting up a NAT with the proxy protocol and configure that the public subnet receives traffic
from NAT
B.    Settin up a proxy policy in the internet gateway connected with the public subnet
C.    It is not possible to setup the proxy policy for a public subnet
D.    Setting the route table and security group of the public subnet which receives traffic from a
virtual private gateway

Answer: D
The user can create subnets within a VPC. If the user wants to connect to VPC from his own data centre, he can setup public and VPN only subnets which uses hardware VPN access to connect with his data centre. When the user has configured this setup, it will update the main route table used with the VPN-only subnet, create a custom route table and associate it with the public subnet. It also creates an internet gateway for the public subnet. By default the internet traffic of the VPN subnet is routed to a virtual private gateway while the internet traffic of the public subnet is routed through the internet gateway. The user can set up the route and security group rules. These rules enable the traffic to come from the organization’s network over the virtual private gateway to the public subnet to allow proxy settings on that public subnet.


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